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“What is the age of consent in the Bible?”

I’m not sure which passage(s) you’re alluding to, but whatever it is, it’s undoubtedly higher than the relativist standard of naturalism without God. That is to say, the “age of consent” would be entirely relative to any particular person’s wishes and/or society’s whims. So essentially the age of consent would be whatever you want it to be.

I am not arguing that “atheists/agnostics don’t believe in an age of consent”, I’m sure most do, rather that I don’t see how any consistent (objective) age of consent could be drawn from a naturalistic worldview.

“Would a god ever take away sin and then strike down an innocent child, because somebody else had sinned?”

If the child is indeed innocent as you note, then the child would (after being “struck down”) go immediately to live eternally in bliss with God. If the child were not innocent (the passage after all doesn’t specify) he would (rightly & justly) not. Regardless, given that God would have perfect wisdom in this situation that we would not, I’d trust His judgment.

“Is there reliable , historical evidence that there were people who had obeyed *all* the Lord’s commandments and regulations *blamelessly*?”

No there is not. (cf Romans 3:23) It seems to me a charitable reading of the passage doesn’t intend to say that he was perfectly blameless; it is in the regular colloquial version of “all”. This hypothesis is bourne out when we look at for example Luke 7:29 (which uses the same Greek word ‘pas’ translated as “all”) … did *all* (as in every single last one without exception) do as described? It seems here a little hyperbole was being used.

Does this mean that “all” never literally means “all” in the text? By no means, it just must be interpreted in context to determine a reasonable meaning for it.

I do appreciate the questions though, it does help to think through these sort of issues carefully.

In the time of Herod king of Judea there was a priest named Zechariah, who belonged to the priestly division of Abijah; his wife Elizabeth was also a descendant of Aaron. Both of them were upright in the sight of God, observing all the Lord’s commandments and regulations blamelessly.

Is there reliable , historical evidence that there were people who had obeyed *all* the Lord’s commandments and regulations *blamelessly*?

Or had they just obeyed a few of God’s commandments and broken some of the others?

You mean that a god would never order children to be killed?

2 Samuel 12
Nathan replied, “The LORD has taken away your sin. You are not going to die. 14 But because by doing this you have made the enemies of the LORD show utter contempt, the son born to you will die.”

After Nathan had gone home, the LORD struck the child that Uriah’s wife had borne to David, and he became ill.

Would a god ever take away sin and then strike down an innocent child, because somebody else had sinned?

Really?

What is the age of consent in the Bible?